Understanding Seeds in the Bible! Plant a Seed, Get a Harvest! Part 2

(ver 1.5)  This is now Part 2 in a series of lessons on the subject of understanding seeds in the Bible.  The Bible contains a vast amount of information on the concept of seeds.  There are actually several things in the Bible called seeds and I listed a few of them in the first blog on this subject.  If you have not read this from the beginning I would suggest that you go back and start reading with “Part 1”.  In the first lesson I talked about the first mention of “seed” in the Bible being found in Genesis 1:11-12.  What God gives us by the law of first mention are some general concepts that are relevant to the entire subject of seeds.  One of the concepts given was the fact that the “seed” is said to be “within itself”.  This is a concept with complex implications attached to it.    What we discover is that an apple tree produces apples that contain seeds.  These apple seeds produce other trees to come into existence which produce more apples and more seeds.  This represents a self-perpetuating system of apple reproduction.  No matter how many apples come from the seeds produced, they all originated from the one.  There is an old saying that goes “Only God knows how many apples are in an apple seed”.  I want to take this concept and expand it to show what the Bible says about how this relates to people and other concepts found in the Bible.  As you recall in the first lesson we also talked about children being seeds.  We saw Seth being called the seed of Eve.

Now let’s talk about the natural human seed of a man.  This is commonly referred to as sperm or semen in our world, but in the Bible God also calls it “seed”.  Why does God use the same word to describe something that we have other words to describe?  Either God didn’t understand any other words to use for this, or God is trying to teach us something new.  That is a common mistake that modern Bible translators and interpreters make constantly.  They take a word like “seed” and change it to “descendant” or a “child” and think they are helping us to understand what God said.  What they do is lose God’s intended lesson on what a seed is and therefore we do not learn what God wanted to teach us.  What we must do is be smart enough to realize that God could have selected any word to describe a subject and if He selects “seed” to describe the semen of natural man, then it has a purpose.  Could it be that the seed concept of planting and harvesting is a truth that occurs when a husband and wife have physical sex?  I think that we should see what God says:

Lev 12:2  Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child: then she shall be unclean seven days; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean.

The Hebrew word translated as “conceive seed” means “to sow” seed.  To sow seed is a farming and agriculture type of term and represents a metaphor for a concept that God says is related.  I doubt very seriously that many couples think of sex in these terms.  It could be that a few do, if they are trying to get pregnant and to have children.

Lev 15:16  And if any man’s seed of copulation go out from him, then he shall wash all his flesh in water, and be unclean until the even.

It is sometimes difficult to discuss every subject found in the Bible.  It seems that God did not leave out anything.  I assume since this is the way He created it, then we can assume that it has a purpose for existing.   In this verse in Leviticus we again see the sperm of the man being called his “seed”.   The term “copulation” means simply a sexual act like intercourse.   I have heard narrow minded preachers teach that since a man has seed, a woman cannot.  However, in the first lesson we saw that Eve called Seth her seed.  So we must conclude that there are different types of seed, and different definitions for seed.  This is truly one of the most complex factors of correct Bible interpretation that we are faced with.  We can learn one definition of “seed” and then must realize that there exists other definitions of the same word and they may or may not be related to each other.   So we have learned that the definition of a word can change based upon the usage and the context of the word.

We have now touched on the first five examples of the term “Seed” found in the Bible.  We have seen physical and natural plant seeds in Genesis.  We have seen the sperm of the man being called seed in Leviticus.  We have seen the children of natural parents being referred to as “Seeds” in Genesis and Ruth.  We have also seen that the offspring of other species of animals are also called “Seeds” in Genesis.  We have learned that every seed reproduces after its own kind from Genesis 1.  So dogs only produce dogs.  Orange seeds only produce orange trees.  Now I want to start discussing one of the most important concepts of seeds given to us in the Bible.  This concept is a spiritual law that God has revealed to us using these natural examples.  We have gone through the 5 natural examples, although not in a complete teaching but more in an overview high level pass of the subject, so that we can now focus on some spiritual applications.

We have learned that God calls the sperm of a man, his seed.  We have also learned that Adam “knew” his wife Eve and she had a seed named “Seth”.  What we see is a pattern of creation that God has designed to teach us.  Adam and Eve were the first two humans in the world that we live in.  They originated every other human being on the planet.  So from 2 people we now have almost 7 billion people on the planet.  That is what God calls being fruitful and multiplying.  But, I want to demonstrate a seed law to you from the Bible.  According to God, whatever happens to your parents is what happened to you.  You probably do not understand what I am talking about right now, but you will soon.

1Co 15:22  For as in  Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.

It truly amazes me how smart God is.  You can see many things in the Bible and then you can read right over them and not even know what they mean or how they apply to other stuff that you just read.  Did you notice that God says that YOU and I were “IN” Adam?  I don’t know about you, but my father was not named Adam, but yet God says I was “IN” Adam.  As you recall from Genesis 2, God told Adam do not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, for in the day that you do, you will surely die.  Adam ignored God’s command and ate and we all die because of what he did.  Is that fair?  I do not know, but yet it is what God says happened. 

What we see is a demonstrated application of the seed law of Genesis, that the “Seed is in itself”.    In other words Adam was walking around in the garden with the “seed” in his body that was everyone else in the world.   Did you understand what I just said?   God says that when Adam sinned, not only did he die, but he caused everyone that came from him to also die.  That is an awesome revelation of the Word of God, for you see it also tells you how we will live in return.   This verse ends with the statement “Even So in CHRIST shall all be made alive”.  So by the law of the “Seed Concept” from Genesis 1, if you are in Christ, you have been made alive.    We’ll talk about this more and how this works in a later lesson, but for now let’s confirm what I just taught you.

Heb 7:9  And as I may so say, Levi also, who receiveth tithes, payed tithes in Abraham.

When I read this verse and studied it for the first time, it truly amazed me.  God clearly shows us another conceptual application of the law “the Seed Being in Itself” in this verse.  So did you read the verse and did you see what God said?  God clearly states that Levi was “IN” Abraham.  So let’s figure out what God is talking about.  Who is Levi?  Levi was one of the 12 sons of Jacob and the head of the tribes of Israel.  That would make “Levi” a great-grandchild of Abraham.  We have Abraham who begat Isaac, then we have Isaac who begat Jacob and finally we have Jacob who begat “Levi” and his 11 other brothers.  What we see is a clear concept of family lineage being established.  Your ancestry represents a research into your past relatives that you descended from.  While not everyone on the earth can trace their natural ancestry to “Levi” or “Abraham, we can all trace our ancestry back to Adam.  What we are learning is some seed concepts describing our human family tree.

Heb 7:10  For he was yet in the loins of his father, when Melchisedec met him.

Now we have still further revelation of the seed mystery, Abraham is said to be the father of Levi, but yet Levi doesn’t come along for another couple of generations.  Do you understand how that applies to us and Adam?  Even though Adam was not our nearest father, he is by default the father of us all.  That also means that every father in between Adam and us is also called our father.  As you can clearly read God informs us that Levi was in the “loins” of his father Abraham.  The loin is defined to be the pelvic region or the sexual reproductive organs of Abraham.  That tells me that out of the millions and millions of sperm cells in Abraham, God knew which one that Levi would come from.  That is some amazing attention to the details, isn’t it?  This is God’s clear definition of the “Seed being within Itself” law from Genesis.   So now pay attention to what this says.  Levi is said to have paid tithes in Abraham, because he was in his father Abraham by God’s definition of a seed.  Do you understand this concept?  Whatever your fathers did, according to God, you did.  That is not always very good news for most of us.   You see a newborn baby, having just been born into the world has already done everything that their fathers have done even before they do anything themselves.  Not really good news is it?  I wish I would have learned this concept as a very young child, I might have done a few things differently as I grew up.   Oh well?

Lam 5:7  Our fathers have sinned, and are not; and we have borne their iniquities.

What we begin to discover in the Bible, is the law of seeds.  We can then better understand how family curses, generational abnormalities and physical diseases are often times inherited within a family tree.  Doctors constantly want to know if your parents had any diseases, because they want to see if they are appearing in you.  Why is this?  Why are some diseases contagious and others are more hereditary?   It would appear that what one parent does, is passed down to future children and this is the basis for the existence of these hereditary diseases.

Mat 27:25  Then answered all the people, and said, His blood be on us, and on our children.

You see the seed concept again being alluded to in this verse of the Bible.  The people of Israel are in the process of killing the Son of God and they say “Let His blood be on us and our children”.    In other words whatever they were doing was being handed down to every generation that would come after them.  That is not very good news for the children who were not there, is it?

The Genealogy of Jesus is given to us in Luke.  Have you ever wondered why God thought this was so important to include in the Bible?  You can clearly see every generation of Jesus going all the way back to Adam.   There around 74 generations listed.  Seventy four names of fathers of Jesus.  If you are a little bit intelligent you realize that God did this on purpose.  You can clearly see from what we have learned about seeds, whatever every father of Jesus did, Jesus is said to have done the same.  So Jesus was in David, Jesus was in Abraham, Jesus was in Adam and every other name mentioned.  This has far reaching consequences for Jesus, doesn’t it?  Let’s briefly explore a couple of the references in the Bible as Jesus being a seed in his natural fathers.

Rom 1:3  Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;

Jesus was born of the seed of David.  This is telling us that Jesus was in David when he was king of Israel.  Being a seed of David qualifies Jesus as an eternal ruler that will sit upon his father’s throne and that is pretty cool.

Gal 3:16  Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

We can clearly see that Jesus Christ is called the Seed of Abraham.  This verse tells us that the intended usage of this word “seed” meant a singular example of the usage of this word.  In other words, this seed is not plural.   So now we can better understand the seed of Abraham being within him when God came to cut covenant with him.  It is very interesting to note that if Jesus was in Abraham his father, then was God making a covenant with himself?  I believe that is exactly what we can see happening.

Mat 26:64  Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of Man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.

Jesus called himself the “Son of Man” more than he called himself the “Son of God” in the Gospels.  Why is that?  Part of the reason why is to overcome the difficulty of man’s inability to accept God coming to the earth in the form of His creation.  Jesus Christ being a physical man on this planet was also informing us that He was the Son of Adam.   You know that Jesus was a Hebrew, yes?  Did you know that the Hebrew word for man and Adam are the same words?   This is why I can say that Jesus walked around and called Himself the son of Adam.   Do you realize what that means based upon what we have learned?  That means when God created Adam, Jesus was already in Adam as a future descendant of this first man.  Jesus Christ was a future seed in the physical man Adam.  What we can see is that God had a plan of salvation for man, even before man was created.  God had already designed Himself into the body of Adam.  God already knew when He was coming , how he was coming and where he was coming when He created Adam.  God could look at Adam and see 74 generations down his family tree and see Jesus.  That is some amazing forethought and planning.  That is some incredible attention to detail.  That is an amazing plan of salvation.

So what have we learned, since Jesus was “IN” Adam, whatever happens to Adam, now transfers to Jesus.  Since Jesus was born the Son of Adam, he must die the death that Adam passed upon all of his descendants (SEEDS).  These are the seed laws given to us by God in Genesis.  Everything produces after its own kind and the seed is always within itself.  Whatever happens to you happens to everyone that comes from you.  Whatever you did, is what your seed did.  I hope that you enjoyed learning some new concepts from the Bible on “seeds”.  I pray that you will learn to apply them to what you do going forward.  In my next blog in this series we will further explore spiritual seeds found in the Bible.

If you would like to continue reading this series of lesson on seeds you can go to “Part 3” now!

About agapegeek

Using the Bible to understand the Bible! Advanced Bible study for mature Chrisitians who want to grow.

Posted on July 21, 2010, in Bible Study, Seeds, Understanding and tagged , , , , , , , , , , , . Bookmark the permalink. 20 Comments.

  1. Our words “semen” and “sperm” are Anglicized versions of the Latin and Greek words for “seed.”
    We use “semen” for the fluid that carries the sperm, the germ cells, even if sperms are absent, such as in the first emissions of a boy entering puberty or if a man is sterile or an eunuch.
    The ancients did not know of the sperms themselves. But God knew, for He created the first man, Adam, who produced the sperms that fertilized Eve’s ovum (egg), her seed.
    The male seed, the sperms, are what “decides” whether a child is male or female. The “XX” gene in a sperm fertilizes the ovum, which is always “XX,” producing a female. If the sperm carries the “XY” gene, it combines with the genes in the ovum to produce a male. Aberrations, such as “XXY” and “XYY,” almost always fail to gestate and soon die.
    The sperm cell was discovered in 1677 by Antoni (or Antoine, or Antonie, or Antony) van Leeuwenhoek, inventor of the microscope, who was careful to note that his sample was from intercourse with his wife and not from Onanism or masturbation. He didn’t know what the sperms were or what their function is. Actually the sperms were discovered by Johann Ham, who saw them with his Leeuwenhoek microscope and brought his sample to Leeuwenhoek. Leeuwenhoek, though, wrote up an account, which he sent to the Royal Society in London, so he got credit.
    The ovum is the largest human cell but was not discovered until 1827 (mammalian) by Karl Ernst von Baer.
    We are the product of innumerable parents, eventually converging on Adam and Eve. All humans are “cousins.”


  2. Hello, I am confused about one aspect of this seed law. If whatever forefathers did is considered what the seed did, then why is Jesus considered to have been sinless since obviously his forefathers committed sins?
    I fortunately discovered this website a year ago and am gaining so much knowledge. Thank you.


    • Thank you. That is a very excellent question to ask concerning God’s hidden mystery. We all should know from reading this verse that Jesus even though being tempted by Satan never committed any sin.

      Heb 4:15 For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin.

      However, that is only one truth to balance with others that are revealed to us. For example analyze this verse in view of the previous from Hebrews:

      2Co 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

      Observe closely that “to be” before “sin” was added by translators and remove them from the English and reread the verse. “For He has made Him sin, that we might be made the righteousness of God”. Now ask the question when was Jesus made “sin” by God? Wow that is a very controversial subject. Most theologians want to say it was when He was hanging on the cross. However, I do not agree because there are verses like this that point us to a different answer:

      Mar 10:6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.

      The Greek word translated “made” is the same one used by the writer in Romans to describe Jesus “made” sin. What I am suggesting is that Jesus being born human could be when He was made sin by God since Jesus being 100% God and 100% man must have inherited the human sin of His father Adam and every other male in the genealogy found in Luke 3.

      If you don’t agree with me, that is OK. I do not believe our salvation hinges upon this belief. This is only best explanation that the Holy Spirit has given me so far to resolve the question. To summarize Jesus could not have sinned personally on the earth due to the Word of God. However, God reveals that He was made sin so we could be made the righteousness of God. Thank you and God Bless.


      • Jesus’ immediate Father is the Father which art in heaven. The penalty for sin, death, comes through the paternal, not the maternal, line. Jesus’ only grandfather was the father of Mary (Maryam, Miriam).
        Jesus was blamed for all of the sins of the ages, and being personally pure, sinless, was the unblemished male Lamb to be sacrificed to pay off the sin-debt that had been accumulating since Adam.
        Imagine being on trial for a horrendous crime. Your attorney pleads your case. The evidence is overwhelmingly proof of your guilt.
        The sentence is DEATH.
        Now, human at-turn-eys step aside and the sentence of DEATH is executed on the accused.
        But if your attorney is the sinless, innocent only begotten Son of the Father, He does not step aside. He takes the punishment. He is put to death in your turn (place). You are free to go. Sin no more.


      • Thank you for sharing. God bless you.


  3. Robert Gutierrez

    You mentioned that the Hebrew word for man is ‘adam. That was an awesome observation that I never considered before. Upon further study I also discovered that the Bible doesn’t record God giving Adam his name. The word “man” occurs nine times in the KJV before the word “Adam” appears the first time in Genesis 2:19.
    You also stated that “Jesus walked around and called Himself the son of Adam” based upon the Hebrew words for man and Adam being one and the same. My question is: what is the significance that whenever Jesus called Himself the Son of Man, He used the Strong’s G444-anthrōpos and not the Strong’s G76-Adam? Can you please give me your thoughts or any comments on this? I am not disagreeing with you. It was just something I came across as I checked what you wrote in this article for myself as any Bible student should (Acts 17:11). God bless.


    • I think you ask very good questions and you are like me in to the details. Being into the minor details insures that we are not missing out on what God wants us to know. I learned this as a computer programmer. The details always matter. Leave out one character in a computer program will change everything to make it not work. You seem to imply in your question that Jesus went around speaking in Greek, but I do not see that anywhere in the Bible. Yes the N.T. is written in Greek, but Jesus did not write it while He was here on the earth. The difficulty comes when you consider that the Spirit of Christ inspired the writers to write what you are reading today and God directed the church to write the N.T. in the Greek language and not Hebrew. Here is where we should stop and ask, why? I personally believe and this is my opinion that the N.T. is written in Greek for two main reasons.

      1. To show that the New Covenant is with a new separate group of people and not just to Hebrews, and
      2. To bring the message of the Gospel to the Gentile people since the Hebrews widely rejected it.

      Now consider who Jesus was sent to on the earth by His own admission. Jesus said that He was ONLY sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel and Jesus never claimed to be teaching or sent to the Gentiles. Jesus was born of the house of David in Bethlehem. We can understand that this means he was a Hebrew born and raised. Thus Jesus spoke the Hebrew language primarily and he would even go into the temple and read from the Hebrew Torah to bring a message of fulfillment about himself. When Jesus read from the book of Isaiah (Luke 4:18), he was reading in Hebrew and speaking in Hebrew to the Jews that were present and this is clearly translated by the writers of the Gospel to the Greek language when recorded in the N.T.
      So your question comes from why dose God write about Jesus being the Son of Man (G444) and in other parts of the N.T. God uses the word G27 when speaking of Adam. I believe that you are implying by your question that they are different words. Here is where we get into translation issues. Any time you translate one language to another language it is never going to come across with 100% accuracy. This occurs everywhere in the English translations and this is evident also in the Greek translations of the Old Testament quotes. The Old Testament is quoted hundreds of times in the N.T. and these words are sometimes changed and sometimes not changed depending on the need for the message. Clearly in the O.T. God used the same Hebrew word for man and for the name of Adam and these are the Strong’s words H120 and H121. But, they are the same words, just two references to the exact same word based upon context.

      Here is how we resolve the question. We find an O. T. verse that contains H120 translated as man and then we should go and read it in the N.T. and determine what this Hebrew word is translated into Greek by God. In doing this we should be able to find the answer if God translated H120 into G444 and that should end the question.

      Jesus quotes an O.T. verse in Matthew 4:4 when he says “Man shall not live by bread alone…”. This is clearly a quote from Deuteronomy 8:3. If you go and read the original Hebrew languages of both writings you will find the answer. In Deuteronomy the Hebrew words for man is “H120” and in Matthew the Greek word for man is “G444”. This should answer your question very directly. God says they are the same word but two different languages. The Greek word “G444” is anthropos and this is where we get the English word for anthropology, the study of man.

      What we have learned is anywhere in the N.T. where God used Greek word G444 you can equate that word to Hebrew word H120. Now the word G27 is another issue. You have to read and find the word in the Stong’s to see that this word is not a Greek word at all, but it is rather a transliteration of the Hebrew H121 because this was the name of Adam. You need to learn the difference between an actual Greek words and a Hebrew transliteration where they came up with an equivalent sounding name/word based upon alphabet sounds. There are many transliterations in the N.T. that were Hebrew names that had no Greek equivalent word so they created a new word in the Greek language that sounded like the Hebrew word. You will see that Strong’s points out that the G27 word is a derivative from the original H121 Hebrew word.
      Thus we have hopefully solved the question. H120 and H121 are both the same words in the Hebrew and they are one time translated as “man” G444 and another time transliterated as Adam G27.

      Thanks for you awesome question and I hope this satisfied your hunger to know the truth.
      God Bless.


      • Robert Gutierrez

        Thanks for answering my question. You definitely provided some good information. God bless!


      • To say that God did not promise Moses to lead the children of Israel into the promised land is technically correct. What than means is God does not force anyone to be successful. But, it was certainly the intended end for God’s people if they would have mixed their faith with God’s Word and possess it. Numbers 20:12 clearly says that God told Moses that it was his fault for not enering in. I thank you for your time in reading and making a comment. God Bless.


      • Thank you this teaching on seed. I’ve really enjoyed it. One thing I want to mention though. Yes, Jesus told his apostles to go to the lost Sheep of Israel because they were waiting for a messiah. However Jesus told a number of people who are gentiles he was the living water is one example. The Samarian woman at the well. HE also spent lots of time in carperaum. As we all know that was in the northern kingdom. Mostly gentiles around there.


      • Jesus spoke the common language of Jewry (Judea, Galilee and Samaria), Aramaic, a close tongue to Hebrew. Modern Arabic descends from Aramaic.
        Jews spoke Hebrew when reciting ritual prayers, or reading from scrolls written in Hebrew. However, most copies of the Bible (Old Testament) were the LXX, the Septuagint, a Greek translation that had been widely copied. The scrolls in Hebrew had been back-translated from the LXX. The accuracy of this double translation was questioned until the Dead Sea scrolls were discovered, studied and compared. Hardly a difference that affected meaning has been found.


      • Thank you for sharing. God bless you.


  4. Adam was the son of God and from him everyone else is derived ie. Abraham, David etc…all are seeds of God or come form God in the spiritual sense and in the natural ( read genealogy of Christ) …so Joseph is a seed of God too because he comes from Him …so basically they come from the same place…God …Joseph was the “adopted” father of Christ on earth ,but, what is the difference between a spiritual father and a natural father who choose to nurture? none
    This is my humble explanation for this


  5. Thank you so much for these studies. They are powerful. You have given me a new perspective of the Seed in the Bible.

    One question though, that is still bothering my mind. Joseph’s sperm did not fertilise Mary’s egg and then Christ was born but rather she was filled with the Holy Spirit. So I fail to understand how Christ was the seed of Joseph, David and Abraham. Wasnt He the seed of God?
    I will humbly appreciate it if you were to explain this to me. Everything else makes sense except for this part.

    Maythe good Lord continue to use you!


    • I wanted to comment on Nosi’s question. The genealogy in Luke traces the lineage of Jesus through Mary, not through Joseph. A man’s seed produces both male and female offspring. So Jesus was in Mary who was in David, in Abraham, and in Adam. Matthew, on the other hand, provides the legal genealogy of Jesus traced through Joseph. But Matthew is careful not to identify Jesus as the physical son of Joseph. Matthew 1:16 says, “And Jacob begot Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus who is called Christ. Notice the phrase “of whom” in this verse. The Greek pronoun that is translated into English as “of whom” is feminine and refers to Mary. Matthew is saying that Jesus was born to Mary, not to Joseph, providing further evidence of the virgin birth.




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